Active Care Exam 2 Practice Test

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• Which 4x4 matrix position includes spinal mobility, segmental stability, cervical patterns and shoulder flexion?
• Which palpation technique uses a pincer grip to detect taut bands?
• A positive straight leg raise test is typically observed when the leg is raised to what range of degrees?
• Name three common differential diagnoses for knee pain in adults.
• What does the neurophysiological mechanism effect of manual therapy state?
• Which of the following represents a normal resting heart rate range for adults?
• Which statement best describes the Functional Movement Screen?
• When a patient presents with a tissue injury what would be one of the primary objectives of treatment?
• What describes nerve flossing (sliders)?
• Which statement best describes a spasm?
• What are all the techniques that utilize post-contraction inhibition AKA autogenic inhibition?
• What are the main characteristics of active trigger points?
• What percent of adults meet the guidelines for aerobic activity only?
• What are CARs?
• True or False: Failure tolerance refers to the body's ability to resist tissue failure.
• What is self-myofascial release?
• What is the recommended approach to pain flares during an exercise program?
• In IASTM parameter descriptions, emolliment refers to what?
• Which technique utilizes both autogenic and reciprocal inhibition?
• What is the number 1 predictor of injury?
• A local twitch response is best described as?
• Which statement about manual therapy benefits is true?
• The suspended matrix position is characterized by which features?
• Which range represents a normal resting respiratory rate for adults?
• Which phase emphasizes building control and load introduction to stimulate healing?
• What is the role of graded motor imagery and desensitization techniques in chronic pain management?
• Which option best reflects the relationship between patient education and adherence?
• Which mechanism accounts for therapeutic effects that rely on placebo and psychosocial factors?
• Which sign indicates possible myelopathy requiring urgent evaluation?
• CRAC uses which inhibition mechanisms to increase ROM?
• Which stretching technique involves maximal isometric contraction?
• Most pain and injuries are non-traumatic.
• In the 6 R\'s of rehab, which item represents the "robust" principle?
• Describe snapping palpation.
• What does the law of repetitive motion and the cumulative injury cycle help us understand?
• Which statement best describes the safety of modalities for acute injuries?
• Where are trigger points located?
• What is the role of pain neuroscience education in Active Care?
• In the law of repetitive motion equation, which variables appear in the numerator that increase tissue insult when increased?
• What is the SAID principle?
• Which are key mechanisms of IASTM?
• What are the first principles of movement?
• What are essential components of SOAP notes?
• Taut bands extend from a trigger point to what?
• Which chest-pain scenario requires urgent evaluation before starting an Active Care program?
• Which type of pain is classified as believing hurt equals harm or that activity is harmful?
• What are all the techniques that utilize reciprocal inhibition?
• How can we alter the dosage of an exercise?
• Which statement best defines failure tolerance?
• Why is symmetry important in joint ROM assessment?
• Which of the following correctly pairs the myotome with its associated movement?
• What is the tension of fibers caused by?
• What is contracture of muscles?
• Under Step 3, exercise program design, which statement best describes the program?
• Describe flat palpation.
• IASTM increases rate and amount of blood flow leading to which direct outcome?
• What are RAILs (regressive angular isometric loading)?
• Which practice involves actively moving joints through circular ROM to improve control?
• What type of pain varies based on static load?
• Which of the following is a differential diagnosis for low back pain with leg symptoms?
• In pain management, what does 'graded exposure' emphasize?
• What is the primary therapeutic aim when addressing trigger points?
• Which option best describes the impact of adequate sleep on rehab?
• Which statement best describes the benefits of manual therapy?
• In graduated exposure, which sequence best reflects the approach?
• In the law of repetitive motion, increasing relaxation time would have what effect on tissue insult?
• What is the best exercise you can recommend to a patient?
• Which statement best describes the principle of tensioners in neural gliding?
• Which modalities are generally considered safe and evidence-based for acute musculoskeletal injuries?
• What type of pain varies based on dynamic movement, load or speed?
• What is the number one predictor of successful outcomes with any exercise program?
• Which of the following accurately lists the six IASTM stroke names?
• What is the primary purpose of outcome measures in rehabilitation?
• Phase 2 mid stage rehab emphasizes?
• Which type of pain varies based on nerve tension, tightness, sensitivity, or symptoms?
• In slump test, what indicates neural tension if symptoms are reproduced?
• Which statement accurately describes latent trigger points?
• Which option best describes the progression of core stabilization training?
• The main pain associated with trigger points is sharp, localized cutaneous-type pain. True or False?
• Dynamic Systems Theory can be modified by changing what 3 factors?
• What approach should you use when patient goals conflict with clinical reasoning?
• Which statement best captures the overall goal of trigger point therapy?
• What is a local twitch response?
• Describe screening palpation.
• Which type of pain is classified by phantom limb pain, reflex sympathetic dystrophy, or similar phenomena?
• Which description correctly defines isometric, isotonic, and isokinetic contractions?
• Name two common upper-extremity tests for lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow).
• Which statement best describes the relationship between tightness and weakness?
• What is part of the retrain aspect of evidence-inspired active care?
• Why do most MSK injuries happen in the first place?
• Which palpation technique would you use to detect taut bands by rolling muscle groups between fingers?
• Which technique helps reduce adhesions between nerves, enhances neural vascularity, and improves axoplasmic flow?
• MET stands for which technique?
• In evidence-informed active care, what is the focus of Step 2, Remove Cause?
• Which phase emphasizes capacity, graded exposure, and return to full performance?
• What is the significance of patient education in prognosis and adherence?
• What is the average tissue healing timeline?
• Which pain type is described as dull and vague?
• What are PAILs (progressive angular isometric loading)?
• Why do we have trigger points?
• Ballistic stretching and active dynamic stretching utilize intensity and contraction percentage?
• In ROM assessment, what does end-feel refer to?
• Which two tests are commonly used to assess shoulder impingement?
• AIS stands for which technique?
• Which statement is NOT a described effect of manual therapy on trigger points?
• Which pain type is associated with burning, shooting or prickling sensations?
• During assessment in evidence-informed active care, what is the purpose of provoking the pain?
• Which statement best describes the Manual Muscle Test?
• The Spurling test assesses cervical radiculopathy by:
• Which of the following describes the benefits of IASTM?
• What would prompt urgent referral for neck-related symptoms?
• How should musculoskeletal conditions be triaged using flags?
• What should be the main focus when altering a patient\u2019s biomechanics and movement optimism?
• What is the recommended frequency and repetitions for neural mobilization?
• What basic nutrition and hydration guidance should be provided to support rehab?
• What is part of the rest aspect of evidence-inspired active care?
• In the context of McKenzie's approach, peripheralization is most consistent with which prognosis?
• What is part of the reinforce aspect of evidence-inspired active care?
• Which option is NOT typically a differential diagnosis for knee pain?
• Which movements involve "fighting" to pull a joint through a large ROM?
• How is the yellow flag risk form scored?
• Phase 3 late stage rehab focuses on?
• Describe the process of building a home exercise program for a patient with knee osteoarthritis.
• Which method is typically performed with no active contraction by the person?
• What is the one exception where we would not want to address trigger points?
• Which of the following is NOT among the six most helpful IASTM stroke types?
• Which statement best describes the biopsychosocial model's role in Active Care practice?
• The stacked matrix position is best described as which features?
• Which option best describes the purpose of co-creating goals in movement principles?
• A pain that is described as burning, shooting or prickling would be considered what type of pain?
• Which stretch is considered gentle with 1 lb pressure at end range and a short contraction?
• What criterion makes an exercise prescription most effective?
• Which description correctly reflects nerve flossing (sliders)?
• Which sequence best describes a patient-centered examination from intake to movement assessment?
• In the McKenzie method, which statement best describes centralization?
• A spasm can be terminated by voluntary relaxation.
• Which term refers to a technique that uses fascial tension to affect fascial chains?
• What is one of the most important concepts for active care?
• Which stretches involve a 10-20% isometric contraction?
• How would you differentiate a meniscal tear from a ligamentous injury in presentation and tests?
• Neural mobilization, when applied properly, should be relatively symptom free.
• Trigger points are defined as?
• In clinical terms, nociception refers to which of the following?
• Which are among the six most helpful IASTM stroke types?
• What is the relationship between weak and tight tissue?
• What does the peripheral mechanism effect of manual therapy state?
• Is injury risk reduction or prevention a more realistic goal?
• Which of the following is a strong predictor of future injury?
• Which statement correctly lists the 6 R\'s of rehab?
• Which of the following is part of the reinforce aspect?
• What percent of adults meet the guidelines for muscle-strengthening activity only?
• What is the largest single organ of the human body?
• Which concept is crucial for guiding progression in active care?
• What is commonly used to spinal malpositioning, scoliosis, disc pathologies and radiculopathy symptoms?
• Weakness generally results in what being high in the law of repetitive motion equation?
• Which of the following lists retrain aspect components?
• What is needed to drive change and facilitate adherence for exercise?
• What is myalgia?
• Which statement best describes the overall objective of evidence-informed active care in rehab?
• Which symptom is most suggestive of an aortic dissection?
• What is the law of repetitive motion?
• What would be under the step 1 or the Assess part of evidence informed active care?
• Which option describes a reliable sign of a knee ligamentous injury during physical exam testing?
• What does treatment of trigger points rely on?
• Which two techniques typically involve a light, submaximal contraction around 10-20%?
• Which statement describes the main characteristics of latent trigger points?
• What is the difference between subjective and objective findings in an exam?
• What technique uses fascial tension to normalize the length and function of fascial chains?
• True or False: Myalgia is a term used to describe diffuse aching muscles and spot tenderness within a muscle.
• Which 4x4 matrix position includes single leg stance, hip and spine loaded stability and load hip extension?
• Should trigger points be addressed in treatment?
• Which two techniques involve 10-20% contraction?
• Which term defines the ability to resist tissue failure?
• Which statement about the Spurling test is correct?
• Which elements are included in Phase 1 of early stage rehab?
• Describe pincer palpation.
• Which mechanism does the gate-control theory relate to for a therapeutic effect?
• Which concept describes the contraction of a loaded muscle after a stretch lasting 10-20 seconds?
• Which type of pain is due to emotional distress, catastrophization, fear-avoidance beliefs and behaviors along with pain hypervigilance?
• Which scenario best illustrates poor load management contributing to injury risk?
• Ballistic stretching is characterized by which type of movement?
• What percent of adults meet the guidelines for both aerobic and resistance training?
• Which of the following is not a yellow flag risk factor?
• What is a common descriptor for tennis elbow?
• Which method is primarily used to address spinal alignment issues including scoliosis?
• What is neuromobilization, aka nerve flossing?
• Which of the following is an example of an outcome measure besides ODI/NDI/DASH?
• When the friction-pressure-tension factor is severe enough or when an acute injury occurs what 2 additional factors come into play?
• What does assessment of muscle look like?
• Which of the following is a red flag requiring urgent referral for a patient with new-onset back pain?
• Nociception equals pain.
• Which statement describes the knee osteoarthritis home exercise program process?
• Which statement best describes autogenic inhibition?
• What is the ELDOA method used for?
• How should pain intensity be used during exercise progression?
• What are taut bands of fibers?
• What is a spasm?
• Which 4x4 matrix position includes spinal curves, cross-crawl pattern, pelvis to trunk disassociation, hip and shoulder flexion and extension?
• What are trigger points?
• Which statement about the relationship between active trigger points and movement is true?
• What MET utilizes reciprocal inhibition (Sherringtons Law)?
• Maitland grades I–II are best described as:
• What does the yellow flag risk form assess for?
• Which technique involves increasing tension within the elastic limit to facilitate neural gliding?
• In clinical practice, centralization during McKenzie assessment is most associated with which prognosis?
• Which statement best describes Grade V Maitland joint mobilizations?
• What is the relationship between VAS (Visual Analog Scale) and RPE (Rate of Perceived Exertion)?
• Which type of pain is described as central or nociplastic?
• Contraction knots that cause fiber tension are located in the region of
• A pain that is described as vague and dull would be considered what type of pain?
• What are the typical parameters for most IASTM procedures?
• How should manual therapies be considered in treatment?
• What MET utilizes autogenic inhibition (post contraction inhibition)?
• PNF stands for which technique?
• What is the significance of central and peripheral pain patterns in the spine?
• What does the mechanical stimulus and biomechanical effect of manual therapy state?
• Which of the following is NOT a red flag in back pain?
• What best describes neural mobility techniques?
• What is the typical structure of a return-to-sport progression after a shoulder injury?
• What is the role of core stabilization in active care?
• Which finding is a red flag signaling possible cervical spine pathology requiring urgent assessment?
• Which statement best describes movement optimization in rehab?